People miscommunicate all the time, and the written dialogue is even more prone to miscommunication. For example, when I read your opening post on this thread (quoted) I thought that you are an advanced trader of these methods, and intend to share your knowledge here. The boldface seemed even a stronger indication of that. You actually proved to be asking for help. You can't afford to antagonize those who show an inclination to help, or you'll lose them. I suggest you try to resolve future misunderstandings from the position of the pupil; you aren't on an equal footing with those who teach you.
Question 2 PP3 Okay. You get two P1's one after another, no exceptions. Volume lands BETWEEN the two P1 values on the third bar of the trend. PP3a Same as PP3 except........ you have a wait in the form of a lateral BEFORE you get the T1. -> is that last T1 a tipo ? It's not about T1s here on PP3, but about P1's. Lost here Referring to the question you made above...
I looked through a couple days worth of charts on 3 different instruments. I did not find a PP3a, a couple close ones, but I do not want to confuse the issue with a pic snip of what is not. IMO, PP3a is more about proper handling of a Lat 3 than anything else. The EE sheets and the posted description for PP3a do not differ. Therefore, imo, there is no tipo-typo. PP3a ------- ......... L1..... L2..... L3 P1 -> P1 -> w -> w -> T1 The T1 is the Lat BO. Otherwise, waits do not occur within laterals, and a "normal" PP3 occurs or not. This is one of many pieces of minutia... stuff that is important to know the existence of, but not anything to dwell on. Additionally, PP3a is not n-1 or n as far as turns. When it occurs, it occurs. If you miss it, the self correcting nature of the method will fix. Or.... you lose eleventy-finzillion USD's.
I agree with the sentiment. Although the Modrian doesn’t list PP3a as an n-1, it can be can be on a n turn as a failed ID locate, thereby advancing a trend.
This is ironic. Here is a PP3a that was the launching point around 9:30am pst on RTY. Nice example of what you said too... Not in Modrian table as n-1, CAN BE n turn. For those that know some of my "quirks", you can also see where I used a BOT1, and how only AFTER a fanning, were BOT1 requirements met.
I am trying to gather all the informations I have to get the EE's and PP's. I'm struggling witht he part on OB. It is not a surprise as I'm still a bit blocked on it when I do VTP. But anyway I feel things on that knowledge area become clearer. Apart from that, I have a problem on my 1 chart posted, on the 3rd bar from the right, P1. Is that P1 correct ? In my VTP document, made by JH, it is said : "After a T1 the next peak is a P2 or P3 and never a P1. This forms the A band of bands. A P1 may follow a P2 if it exceeds the prior P1. P2's can follow P2's if the prior P2 is exceeded. " I founded the P1 I'm talking about, from that explanation. It seems ok to me, but not a 100%. PS : the more I work on it, the more my eye is getting confidence and ability to understand and see that there a very little finite universe of possibilities at each and every time. Not saying it seems to always end up with A vs B options, but almost.
You're EE catalog is not matching the descriptions on the PP! sheet. You'll have to go through and determine which ones. https://www.elitetrader.com/et/thre...is-material-alive.320588/page-24#post-4723146 Where you said, 'got it', you'll have to get it again and amend your charts.