I'm going to assume that we agree that 'the right to own slaves' is an issue that shouldn't be voted on by the general populace. What makes 'gay marriage' any different?
The same difference that being Gay & being a pedophile are two different things despite the fact that the whackos on the extreme right are trying to package them as ONE. The same as believing in women's rights doesn't mean they sue to play Golf in Augusta because it's their "right." or Blacks suing to work at Abercombie & Fitch...despite the brand being nauseatingly "white."
You didn't answer the question. Read it again, and tell me, in specific terms, why the general populace should vote on this issue, but not on the right to own slaves. You said that 'it doesn't affect your life', correct?
I was talking about wasting 40 posts on deductive vs inductive reasoning and the proper use of words in a colloquial context.
No, the general populace MUST NOT vote on Owning slaves. Again, the fallacy here is equating slave ownership WITH Gay Marriage. Gay Marriage is NOT a civil rights issues. Which right does it infringe upon ?
Once again, you've failed to answer the question. Try again. On what grounds is gay marriage an issue that should be governed by a popular vote? Perhaps you could give specific examples of where gay unions are a detriment to the welfare of the general public.
I'm not against gay unions. I'm against gay "marriage". Gay unions are not governed by the popular vote, Gays are trying to get their unions SANCTIONED by the government. In fact, Gays are trying to get the government to interfere in their relationships. Marriage is nothing but a contract, you can write yours.