If I wanted to compare IV skew of OTM calls and OTM puts, what would be a fair comparison in regards to moneyness? Given BSM deals only with log returns, simply comparing a 5% OTM call with a 5% OTM put would not be correct. So I am guessing it would be one of the two... 1. 30D Put vs 30D Call (any delta, just as long as they are the same) 2. ATM*e^(.05) vs ATM*e^(-.05) (comparing compound adjusted strikes) Thanks!