Using implied volatility to estimate range

Discussion in 'Options' started by Grantx, May 12, 2020.

  1. jamesbp

    jamesbp

    The ATM strike with Spot at 2926 is 2925
    The 2925 Straddle is 47.05
    The 1 SD implied move is Straddle price 47.05 x 1.25 = 58.80

    Make any more sense ?
     
    #11     May 12, 2020
    Grantx likes this.
  2. Logicae

    Logicae

    I use IV to see how much more or less I'm paying on premium, but that's about it (compared to HV). Like you said, I don't see much point for directional plays using IV or any given range. If looking for range, you'd have a better idea looking at OI and volume.
     
    #12     May 30, 2020
  3. guru

    guru


    Yeah, there is also a proof: if IV was really determining an expected range, then the IV would be decreasing to zero when the stock price is nearing the end of that range. But the opposite happens: once the stock price reaches that “range”, poof, now IV is x times higher and we have a new completely different expected range that’s even wider then previously. So even logically this is bs by default.
     
    Last edited: May 30, 2020
    #13     May 30, 2020
    Logicae likes this.