Please help me understand why the sec doesn't require specifics on the puts Icahn sold to finance this FDO trade. Here are the specifics of the calls and stock he bought, see items 5 and 6 http://www.sec.gov/Archives/edgar/data/34408/000092846414000058/fdosch13d060614.htm Under item 6 put options the strike of the puts is not mentioned but with the calls, he bought the 38 strike in april 16, 2014. "The per share exercise price of these call options is $38.00" "1) Represents shares underlying American-style call options purchased by the applicable Reporting Person in the over the counter market." Many thanks for any insight.
Why would you waste your time trying to decode that form line by line when the financial press has written ad-nausium about the issue. Just go to Google and you will get at least 20 articles from WSJ, Forbs etc as to what is and might be going on... including the poison pill. https://www.google.com/?gws_rd=ssl#q=Icahn+Family+dollar
Because the press is often wrong and often leaves out details that may be pertinent to whatever he is looking at.