Hmmm...what we've got here is failure to communicate. Some men you just can't reach: A short trading signal on currency A/B followed (later) by a short signal on currency B/C does not mean you should close trade A/B and B/C and go short A/C. Sure, you are now basically short A/C, so what? You should know that by now. If not don't worry, the market will teach you that in due time.
From an intraday point of view (from midnight New York time), the NZD/CHF did not even bother retracing to the 38.2% Fibonacci level (see chart below), let alone the 50%. This is usually the sign of a healthy down trend. Of course anything is still possible but so far so good.
Out at same price (0.6195). NZD/CHF is trying to test the 0.6206 resistance level and the 0.6210 level. Plus the spread could widen 20 or 30 pips during the 5 PM rollover and hit the stop. Waiting for re-entry after 6 PM.
Yeah, you read the wiki, but you remain thick AF. YES, that is exactly what it means. The position is converted into EUR/CHF. There is no longer any CAD exposure. Period. The net result of your BS is short EUR/CHF. You should absolutely NOT have traded the second leg if you wanted to remain in CAD.
your model doesn’t want you to be short A/C at all. How do you reconcile that? You’ve been trading for 20plus years and don’t get this basic contradiction in your own trading algorithm.
A system can generate a short signal in currency A/B, then short B/C (hours later), but not necessarily in A/C. You seem to have ZERO knowledge about the inner working of mechanical trading systems, stop polluting this thread with this endless meaningless chatter, I am asking you politely.
How do you reconcile that your system produces two signals that implies a third but does not explicitly produce the third signal? I can only come up with one rational explanation but you denied that in an earlier post. This is a real question that if I’m right will make your system better. If I’m wrong, you will have a proper explanation and everyone is wiser (which is the reason a bunch of people asked you to start a journal, right)
Because the 2nd signal was generated more than 9 hours later, for a start! If you have a buy signal on EUR/USD and 3 months later you have a buy signal on USD/JPY, while the first trade is still open, do you dump the EUR/USD position, ignore the USD/JPY signal and buy EUR/JPY instead, even though there is no trading signal on EUR/JPY? What's the matter with you? Think man, think!
He simply doesn't understand... It's not registering. He bought a Forex book 20 years ago, but apparently it was used as a coaster. And to top it all off, he doesn't want ANY exposure to ANYTHING!