I would appreciate your input and opinion on the following: It seems that for bear markets tied to large economic problems the time to bottom is around 2 years. Data mining with a sparse sample I know, but useful? I really don't know, just wondering since we are 1 year from the top. Also could someone with historical insight add more: 1929-1932 2.5 years to bottom 2000-2003 ~2.5 years mild recession, historic bubble 1972-1974 2 years 1991-1992 not a bear market 1981-82 1.5 years 1987 not a recession 1956-1958 2 years 1953 not a bear market as far as I can tell 1969-70 ~1.3 years, but bear market only- no recession
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