Strategy

Discussion in 'Options' started by Chuck Krug, Aug 4, 2011.

  1. spindr0

    spindr0

    Start deducting pts. We're heading for page 6
     
    #31     Aug 4, 2011
  2. took the whole shabangle of the table
    except the short fut
     
    #32     Aug 4, 2011
  3. i can feel the love in the room
     
    #33     Aug 4, 2011
  4. So i shorted 100 IWM
    shorted 1 sep 70 put
    bought 100 dia
    and sold 1 sep 125 call
     
    #34     Aug 4, 2011
  5. MTE

    MTE

    Back to square one, huh!? :)

    Why do you insist on making two trades instead of one?
     
    #35     Aug 4, 2011
  6. to try and stay market neutral overnight
     
    #36     Aug 4, 2011
  7. and because i'm stubborn
     
    #37     Aug 4, 2011
  8. MTE

    MTE

    It's not about being market neutral.

    Instead of shorting 100 IWM and 1 sep 70 put, you could've just shorted 1 sep 70 call and have the same exposure. Also, instead of buying 100 DIA and shorting 1 sep 125 call, you could've just shorted 1 sep 125 put.

    Why make 4 trades and pay 4 commissions and slippage, when you can make 2 trades to achieve the same position!?
     
    #38     Aug 4, 2011
  9. i would never short a put without the underlying
     
    #39     Aug 4, 2011
  10. It's convertible. Shorting the underlying and the put is synthetically equivalent to selling the call (same strike) outright.

    I am selling the 170P when I go long 100 IBM and sell the 170C. The difference between the two positions is the conversion arbitrage. I realize you're stubborn, but it's more important that you "get it" then concern yourself with the additional $10 in commission and slip.

    You are short a naked put when you buy XYZ and sell a call.
     
    #40     Aug 4, 2011