I am using the options calculator by ivolatility.com to calculate implied vola. Could someone please help with the following: 1) Is the implied volatility number shown by the calculator annualized? 2) If implied vola is annualized, then converting an annualized 82% number to 795 days to expiration would be: 82% x (795/365)^0.5 = 121%. Is this then the implied 1 stdev for an option expiring 795 days out? Thank you.

It is clearly stated there: "This free service provides basic end-of-day information on specified underlying - such as last value of IV index (for Calls, Puts and their average value), Historical volatility and correlation against major index." and looks like in the attached image, Ie. HV and IV for 1wk, 1mo, 52wk, ... ...unless you mean a different functionality or link there... BTW, the site has a UI-bug, just do this: enter symbol, click on Go, click Advanced Options, click Basic Option

A value (stock price) with an annual volatility of 82% should in 795 calendar days vary in 68.2689492% of the cases (ie. 1 sigma (=1SD)) between 235.275036% (+1SD) and -70.173741% (-1SD). This is using lognormal distribution and 365.2425 days/yr.

Yes, the calculation is correct. But see also prev. posting about the corrosponding values that belong to +1SD and -1SD.