In reviewing the thread, he didn't mention he was hedging anything, actually. I guess we just assumed he was, rather than accept that he has naked options.
I wonder if he's still holding these. They already lost 3/4th of the value from the time of his post.
Your just assuming he hedged the majority of his portfolio when QQQ hit lows but judging by his word structuring it's quite obvious most of it was done way before it. My guess in the 320-370 range / maybe even ATH. Unless, he averaged down enough on shares to reduce his dollar cost when SPY/QQQ hit lows. I don't see how he is not deeply in the red rn
who knows what his cost basis is or total pnl is from inception. What matters is if his hedge is working out for him (reducing his overall risk to the factor he cares about). he might be in the red. He also might be hedging a position that he acquired in 2009. either care doesn’t matter. It only matters from the time he put the hedge on.
Put this guy on ignore. Feels like he's making posts just for the sake of winning an argument while providing zero intuition sense. (Waste of time.)
i'll help you out. i'll block you.... notice your first post on this was to insult the OP without actually adding any value (other than to take credit for Bob Morse's post).
So, my 11 QQQ puts with a 300 strike price auto exercised yesterday and I am now short 1,100 QQQ shares. That's generally OK, as I bought the puts to offset (a little bit) the long TQQQs I had. My question is this: I don't want my account to be materially any more negative/positive after the exercise of the puts than before. My thinking is that it won't be - since the puts were "in the money" prior to exercise, they were moving more/less like the QQQ itself would. Does that make sense? Thanks!
Well shit...Isn't the QQQ currently priced at 290 or so currently? You now have a net positive position with your TQQQ. Would it not make sense to cover the QQQ shorts, and let the TQQQ long work for you now? You have house money as a buffer on the longs.