Simple trading question about slippage

Is it true that there's a negative expectancy with slippage? If I place a market order, the odds of the market ticking up or down in between the time I place it and the fill should be equal right? Just wondering because it always seems to me that slippage goes against me rather than in my favor most of the time. If there is a negative expectancy, why?


EDIT: Stop market orders might have a negative expectancy since it is ticking against you?

 

wow, just give us your account now and save yourself the anguish

 

You're a scumbag. You don't even know the answer to the question, you're just assuming I'm stupid.

 

honestly, learn more

 

You don't know the answer, that's very clear. You should probably study more instead of mocking people for no reason you scumbag.

 

My mockery just might save you some pain. Get one thing clear in your mind- the markets will punish you for being niave. I am only hitting your ego, others will hit your wallet.

 

Thanks for the mindless cliche. My question had to do with the mechanics of the market. It has nothing to do with making or losing money.

 

sure, whatever you say, go about your business

 

The scumbag word should be used judiciously in forums, even if you get a less than polite response to a question.

And not to be flip at all but consider trading an instrument liquid enough and a time frame large enough where slippage isn't even a factor.

And yes, it can go for or against you but if it goes 'for' you, then price might be moving against your position, right away.

 

I'm not looking for trading advice, I'm asking about the mechanics of slippage. If I place a buy market order, the ask may tick up or down in that split second. If it's the same likelihood, why does slippage have a negative expectancy?