Short-selling DITM options

Discussion in 'Options' started by marsman, Jun 20, 2016.

  1. marsman

    marsman

    No, z is the "z-value" (calculated from volatility, spot, and strike) from probability calculations, p(z) is the probability belonging to that z-value,
    and S2K is simply the %distance of the underlying spot (S) to the strike (K).
     
    Last edited: Jun 20, 2016
    #11     Jun 20, 2016
  2. sss12

    sss12

    @marsman..with all do respect, I think you have to get your OTM vs ITM straight in your head before working on the probabilities !
     
    #12     Jun 20, 2016
  3. sss12

    sss12

    @marsman , ( sorry, didn't mean to sound so snarky in my previous) also I think I get where you are going with your "formula" but, is there a directional component to it ? or just distance in either direction from an ATM strike ?
     
    #13     Jun 20, 2016
  4. toonerdy

    toonerdy

    I think there would probably be more of a market for and less early exercise of very deep in the money options if the margin rule for a simple long option position were changed from...

    100% of the value of the option (at least that is my understanding of how it is in the United States)
    ...to...
    minimum(100% of value of the option, margin requirement of the underlying)

    The fact that a deep in the money option can have margin requirements exceeding the underlying creates an artificial incentive for early exercise or not to buy the option at all, and I don't see what the extra margin requirement protects anyone from in this case.

    Corrections and counterarguments are welcome.
     
    #14     Jun 21, 2016
  5. marsman

    marsman

    No dir comp, yes in either dir... :)
    And of course use fabs(x)...
    In my case it's usually about finding high prob for _not_ happening a certain event...

    And from my experience: calculating the ITM and OTM values for _short_ positions is the most complicated (sometimes one needs them indeed)...
     
    Last edited: Jun 21, 2016
    #15     Jun 21, 2016
  6. marsman

    marsman

    You could be right, indeed. The ITM part should be substracted from the 100% as it already is a collateral.
     
    Last edited: Jun 21, 2016
    #16     Jun 21, 2016
  7. sss12

    sss12

    @marsman...be careful if you are just selling premium (even in spreads) based on probability and fabs without encorporating an opinion/call on the direction of the underlying and/or direction of vol. These risks have been discussed extensively in this forum.
     
    #17     Jun 21, 2016
  8. marsman

    marsman

    The goal is to have the option of the holder expire worthless. Ie. keeping the position till it expires, not trying to early-close it. Then in fact volatility-change doesn't matter at all .
     
    #18     Jun 21, 2016
  9. sss12

    sss12

     
    #19     Jun 21, 2016
  10. marsman

    marsman

    @sss12 A quote w/o any comment? What do you want to say with this? :)
     
    #20     Jun 21, 2016