Resolving a dispute over the Kelly formula

Discussion in 'Risk Management' started by Ghost of Cutten, Jun 9, 2013.

  1. Visaria

    Visaria

    Can u give an example of a system with a known rate of wins and known win/losses?
     
    #21     Jun 11, 2013
  2. kut2k2

    kut2k2

    Bingo! Somebody gets it. :)

    I've tried repeatedly to direct the OP to the "Bad Kelly" thread which explains all of this but apparently he simply refuses to go there.

    You can lead a horse to water etcetera.

    One last word: just because a formula has been copied and pasted to a lot of books and websites, that doesn't automatically make it correct. Only actually being correct makes it correct.
     
    #22     Jun 11, 2013
  3. panzerman

    panzerman

    Exactly. In trading, the true value of p is basically unknowable. It's not like tossing dice. All you can do is make an educated guess at p, knowing that at some point, that guess is going to be wildly wrong and could bite your account in the ass. Other risk management techniques, like a fixed percent of assets (1% for example) are probably just as appropriate.
     
    #23     Jun 11, 2013
  4. Craig66

    Craig66

    #24     Jun 11, 2013
  5. kut2k2

    kut2k2

    Of course if a trader figures out how to calculate the Kelly fraction independent of p, that will alleviate this concern.

    Certainly solving the Kelly equation head-on, however odious that may seem, doesn't involve any side calculations of p or other summary statistics. And the Kelly estimation which I now refer to as the gummy fraction (k1) doesn't require p. There are other ways of estimating the Kelly fraction (k) that don't require p. But they do require thinking outside the box.

    k1 = sum[ Ri ]_i=1toN / sum[ (Ri)^2 ]_i=1toN
     
    #26     Jun 12, 2013
  6. Visaria

    Visaria

    What does R refer to in that equation, pls?
     
    #27     Jun 13, 2013
  7. kut2k2

    kut2k2

    Ri is the return (%/100) of the i'th trade. For example, if the 37th trade concludes in a loss that is 52% of the 37th trade size, then R37 = -0.52
     
    #28     Jun 13, 2013
  8. Visaria

    Visaria

    So for instance, say the 37th trade had an initial risk of £1000, but the actual loss of £520, would that mean R37 = -0.52?
     
    #29     Jun 13, 2013
  9. The problem is that you do not know any of the variables in that equation for any of your trades or strategies.
     
    #30     Jun 23, 2013