So, to be more precise, it's just VWAP x A, where A = (sum of volume for the day) / (sum of prices for the day) Am I right so far?
for us dummies the formula for the means by a no means chart is follow the market from nip to cleave to ledge to cleave to nip,these are single days side by side with a cumulative 10 day on the right,we dropped to the 53 cleave on that chart and stalled ,if the drop continues , 50 would be the next target,if she can hold the stall, then return to the 55 nip above,if today was a top , then the widest spot on the cumalative ,38 would be the nearest target for buyers to step in ,the scales and sizes obviously change with larger timeframes
Wait... you are saying you never considered the relationship between your PWAV and VWAP until I pointed it out (on way to my next point)?
I hacked it out quickly from my VWAP codelet, so I knew. What I did not consider is that your "A" is what I was looking for, a direct measure of Volume Inefficiency. What ET craves above all else is novel bullshit.