If I sell a call for $2 and the option gets in-the-money before expiration, who is on the other side of the assignment transaction? Is this a person who was willing to buy a call for $2 at the same strike price or would it be just anyone who bought a call at the same strike price ? Would I get assigned on a first-come-first-served basis even though my expiration date is 2 years away, or would others with a shorter term contract be given preference over me even though my buy-write transaction was done before their's were done? Also, if I sell an option, am i allowed to use the premium eventhough contract has not expired? I apologize for beginner questions. Thank you in advance.