the equation is sum(2k/2^k) where k is 1 to inf. let the equation be x which is 2/2+4/2^2+6/2^3... or 1+2/2+3/2^2+4/2^3... now x/2= 1/2+2/2^2+3/2^3+... x-x/2= 1+1/2+1/2^2+1/2^3+... the RHS is a geometric series whose sum is 2 hence x/2=2 and x=4, which is the answer.
First off, the "retard" reference is not appropriate on any level. It is a total garbage meme that needs to be deleted from the American Linguistic conceptional schema. Second, a legitimate quant with any kind of real experience or skills will not be asked those stupid SAT/GRE word problems. They will want to see RECENT examples of your work!
Correct on both points! This sort of mental masturbation, including highly esoteric C++ questions on things one would never use and probably shouldn't use, is reserved for wet behind the ear MFEs, MMFs and PhDs entering Quant finance. It would be highly offensive to ask any experienced Quant this sort of sheah.
The answer can't be 2. The _best case_ time is 2 whether the first move is to B or D and then back to A. It's impossible that the best case time would be average when we need to account for longer travels to C and more lengthy returns therefrom.
What they need to ask is "How do we turn this operation around?" or "How would you beat the s&p 500?"
My ten minutes is up, and I only got one. I'm stuck using + - / or *, but I'm sure there are other equations you must use.
1 # 1 # 1 = 6 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 3 * 3 - 3 = 6 4 # 4 # 4 = 6 5 + 5 / 5 = 6 6 * 6 / 6 = 6 7 - 7 / 7 = 6 8 # 8 # 8 = 6 9 # 9 # 9 = 6 I got five easy ones. Dont think the others can be done with just one of +-/*, might have to use things like sqroots and cube roots aswell.
its a simple algebra solution... x= th eqn x/2... i have written so subtracting second equation from first u get x-x/2 on the LHS and the other side as per the diff of the equations.
(1+1+1)! = 6 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 3 * 3 - 3 = 6 4 + 4 - 4^(1/2) = 6 5 + 5 / 5 = 6 6 + 6 - 6 = 6 7 - 7 / 7 = 6 8^(1/3) + 8^(1/3) + 8^(1/3) = 6 (9 + 9) / 9^(1/2) = 6