If you buy a put you will have the same time decay. You can buy a 60 dte call and sell it at 30 dte to minimize the decay
Would 90dte buy and 60dte sell be better? Or is this so far out that it doesn't reflect current price well enough?
A 90 dte call will be more expensive then thee 60 dte. The time decay is lower but you will lose more if the market has a big correction.
Ok. So right now, the price difference between 60dte and 30dte is 41.75. So I need an upward move of 41.75 just to break even. Does that sound sensible? Especially knowing that I have no choice but to sell in 30 days to avoid accelerated time decay?
What do you mean "naked"? That is usually used discussing short option positions. I am saying you can replicate your proposal of long underlying + protective put via a long call position.
It will be close but it won't be the same thing because each instrument moves differently as far as trading goes because of various factors like supply & demand factors and etc.
A long call by itself. You don't need to hedge it with anything else. It's already hedged inherently.
You should just buy a 30 dte call. Time decay can be horrendous especially if there is a dramatic drop in volatility. Given that there is already an FDA approved over-the-counter anti-covid pill that results in 89% cure rate, chances are covid is about to be over and there won't be much volatility barring something else happening.
Time decay is horrendous even without volatility. Right now, it would have to go up 75 points just to break even. With a futures contract, that 75 points would have profited me $3750
Even with volatility you mean? Yes that's why if I were you, I would've bought futures and just hedge with an OTM put for insurance. At least that way you have a 1-delta instrument and with no time decay.