I have a question that perhaps someone may be able to answer... If ABC corporation, a U.S. based company, employs 10,000 people and 9,000 people are fired in the U.S. and then they hire 9,000 in India, does the Dept. of Labor count those 9,000 hired in India as if they were hired in the U.S., thereby no net loss of jobs for ABC corporation? If so, the monthly employment figures are BS, at least for people in this country.
Does it really matter anyway? The numbers they release are estimates anyway, they don't have a real idea until they get tax returns the following year, then they punch those into the random number generator to give the "true" jobs created/lost.
No. You will have 2 seperate corporate entities in this case. One in the US. The other in India. In the US, you are firing 9000 people. US. DoL will account the #s for this. In the India, you are hiring 9000 people. Indian DoL will account the #s for this. You are dealing with 2 seperate business entities. Any corporate entity is limited within the country it is located. Every country has different laws and regulations. Every international branch office follows the local regulations. The headquarter (which would be in the US) would serve as the holding company. You don't expect the Indian local firm to be paying US taxes would you? or pay Chinese factory workers based on US minimum wage rate. ... You seem to be "competent" about hedge funds via other posts, so a good example would to ask yourself why offshore tax haven can exist. Anyways, what kind of a question is this? You write about managing hedge funds and you come out with a dumb question like this... gimme a break
http://finance.yahoo.com/q/pr?s=IBM Looking at the above link, it says that IBM has 366,486 full time employees; is that number of employees just U.S. employees or worldwide employees? I assume worldwide employees.
With all the outsourcing going on, I highly doubt that the monthly unemployment figures are accurate. It just doesn't add up, unless they count part time $7/hour Walmart greeters as employed, even though these people were once engineers and programmers. I would consider these people as underemployed.
Would a company based in the U.S. pay corporate income taxes on its profits entirely to the U.S., even though they may have offices/factories in 100 different countries? Or would they pay income taxes to each of the 100 different countries, based on how much profit they earned in that country?
:eek: :eek: :eek: Great... go tell that to the DoL. Did you actually have a question? or is this another whiner thread...