Noobie question about probability of ITM (math, probability)

Discussion in 'Options' started by winson, Mar 2, 2020.

  1. ironchef

    ironchef

    Thanks.
     
    #11     Mar 3, 2020
  2. winson

    winson

    Thank you very much!
     
    #12     Mar 4, 2020
  3. winson

    winson

    #13     Mar 4, 2020
  4. .sigma

    .sigma

    Bionic Turtle is a beast man... he has so much content. A lot of it goes over my head but I"ll watch sometimes for fun
     
    #14     Mar 4, 2020
    tommcginnis likes this.
  5. tommcginnis

    tommcginnis

    So, P(Touch) for a 0.75 delta is 25%, or (2*25%) 50%?

    This is very interesting. I haven't seen the actual P(Touch) in a while, but would love to map this "twice(OTMĪ“)" rule-of-thumb and see how they track. Any sources handy?
     
    #15     Mar 4, 2020
  6. taowave

    taowave

    Wait..Whats happening here???

    I must be missing something...

    This nifty little formula just shows the corresponding put probability of being touched..
     
    #16     Mar 4, 2020
  7. panzerman

    panzerman

    #17     Mar 4, 2020
  8. As a general rule, it isn't but it could be under some circumstances.
     
    #18     Mar 4, 2020
  9. For delta near 50, if the current price is exactly the strike, then the probability of touch is 100%. Otherwise, the delta approximation is:

    2 * min(delta,1 - delta)

    This is a pretty crude approximation. A better approximation for probability of touch is:

    2 * min(dual-delta,1 - dual-delta)

    Delta is N(d1) or the 1st derivative of option price with respect to S (underlying stock price). Dual-Delta is N(d2) or the first derivative of option price with respect to K (strike). Dual-Delta is the probability, under the risk-neutral measure, of the option expiring ITM. You can see that in the second term of the BSM call formula, the term involving K. That term is the discounted K (strike, or the amount the call buyer has to pay if he exercises) times the probability (N[d2] or dualdelta) that he will actually exercise.

    R code to compute exact probability of touch under risk-neutral measure:

    Code:
    bsProbOfTouch <- function(S,K,T=1,r=0,q=0,sigma=0.1)
    { if(K == S) {
      return(1)
      } else
      { mult <- sign(S - K)
      rr <- (r - q) - sigma^2 / 2
      pt1 <- pnorm((mult * log(K / S) + rr * T) / (sigma * sqrt(T)))
      pt2 <-((K / S)^(2 * rr / sigma^2))
      pt2 <- pt2 * pnorm((mult * log(K / S) - rr * T) / (sigma * sqrt(T)))
      return(pt1 + pt2)
      }
    }
    
    Of course, risk-neutral implied probabilities may have little relationship with real-world probabilities. So caveat emptor.
     
    Last edited: Mar 5, 2020
    #19     Mar 5, 2020
    TheBigShort, .sigma, ironchef and 2 others like this.
  10. ironchef

    ironchef

    Thank you. This is very useful because probability of touch is an important factor for me to consider.

    I have downloaded historical data and would like to compare probability of touch with actual outcome. I can code in VBA excel but not R.

    I think I can do the formula in excel.

    Regards,
     
    #20     Mar 5, 2020
    tommcginnis and .sigma like this.