On bar 9 I come to a problematic point, which I already talked about in a prior post when I was quoting @tiddlywinks 's great explanations : So I'm here : NB : I have redrawn the circling arrows around each "F" in the log, as I think I was not doing them appropriately (clockwise, counterwlockwise). At bar 9, if I conserve my bad way of thinkning as for VTP, i'd say it's a T1. But, on that bar, price BO prior RTL. Is it my first time I correctly ID a BO,T1 ? If yes, I would then say it's a repeat of T1. Any comment is welcome.
Your problem starts at Bar6 and Bar7. If degapping and bar6 is internal, then wait. Then measure bar7. If degapping and bar6 is not internal, then measure. When measuring does the bar’s close break the rtl established by P1 and T1? If so then what EE? If not then look in the list of EE’s and find a Bar after T2P < T1.
The text is nice, but inaccurate. The sheets and accompanying texts/posts are accurate, for this situation, the volume elements sheet. So prefer the sheets for the logic. There's also stuff missing, which needs to be filled in by MADA and using the system methodically bar-by-bar, and also considering intrabar developments.
>> From what is red circled so "T2P appear after P2 and is between P2 and T1 in value", how do you come to "A "repeat" T2P is greater or equal to the first T2P." ? As Sprout said... Because it would then be a T2F. The sentence AFTER your red circle says the same... "A T2F can appear after a T2P and it is less than a T2P and more than a T1" One thing to note in association with your use of "merging" volume and price movement... the above doesn't mention equals. Price movement can be the determinant between ID'ing a repeat T2P or a T2F. Equal is NOT the case in the example, but if it was... And equal is not the only time price movement merges with volume. This is just an obvious situation (to me) where volume and price movement would clarify, as a duo. One more thing I want to add. Something that seems to have been "overlooked". VTP alone is quite capable of making money! All the other methods... containers, gaussions, rdbms, all of them use VTP either directly or indirectly. The explanation I provided for the first 6 bars of the example caught the end of short and beginning of long. No muss no fuss. Rdbms would recognize bar 6 as an "Ab" EE. Gaussian sees it as DV, a trough (in context). The tape container sees it as DV, which when merged with the price movement is approach/bump of the RTL. All the methods get to the same place. Some with simple MADA, some more visually, and some in a more complex way. The stuff beyond VTP is refinement. Depending on your level of need or want for pedantical reasoning, VTP is enough to make money in the markets!!
I was sensing it a bit thank you ! To help myself a bit more, I decided to have this handdrawn too : Hmm..do you mean "if you stick the open of bar 6 to the close of bar 7 and get a same price level" ? In the litterature internals are some price cases. Here on bar 6 and 7 I have an XB so no internal. If you do talk about open and close comparison, then I'm in the case of my chart, to measure bar 6 as its close is above bar 5's open-> the result is that its close does not cross prior RTL established from P1 and T1. Seeable here : So I'm to find the EE... this is where firstly, I fail to undertsand further. I think VTP is to be filled with volume elements which are P1, T1, P2, T2P and T2F. And I thought there is 35 EEs, 14 in the Pre-Primary (PP!s), 8 in the A-Band and 13 in the B-through K band. So, as I know, The major clue to getting EE's is to know the band in effect for the bar you are measuring. Therefore, which Band am I into at bar 6 ? As I know, Only the EE's of the band can appear at these band-specific times. All the OOE's are kicking in AND When a T2P occurs the B band is in effect. At bar 5 the B band appeared. So at bar 6, I'm in the B band. So I take my B-Band handdrawn document and see this : I know from you @Sprout that being as the close does not XO prior rtl, then I must watch in the EE list and "find a Bar after T2P < T1." I don't know well how to read this table. But at the moment, with the "find a Bar after T2P < T1.", I would say the window left event concerns the last volume element IDied. It was a T2P. So I look in the column and watch which EE of the B - Band is preceeded by a T2P. There are 3 possible : G(P3F), Ka and Kb. And if it has to be < T1, then it would surely mean that I should find T1 in the "upper limit" column. As none of the three items let me find this, then I know I'm wrong. Any comment on the previous DDs is welcome, but this time it's much more fertile. Going somewhere alone that leads to an error is much better and inspiring than not being able to go anywhere. I will continue to search for the answer, and I feel I'll find something. Hell.....all this is hard
Now reading the butt handed to me. By the way, is there any tool/program/excel, etc to automate the process such as filling the mada log? If anyone has it, mind to share it with me? If i know the mada logic, i may want write excel vba script to automate the log, based on inputs bar#, ohlcv values, and any other input which cannot be derived/calculated by the script, such as pt1,2,3,ftt,etc. The output can be annotated to chart manually, or use it directly for trading purpose if possible. I feel it shouldn't be hard as it only has few parameters to use and jhm doesn't use complex maths, only +,-,/,*, boolean algebra, i guess. Not fully automated because some values have to key in manually. Of course it might be enhanced to be fully auto.
Do you mean T2P is bar number 4 on my chart ? if not, can you reformulate please cause I don't get what you mean here. As confirmed by @Sprout and @tiddlywinks , bar 4 is P2, bar 5 is T2P. And as confirmed by my documentation, when T2P occurs, B band is in effect. So how and why do you relationate my "problematic zone" located in bar 6 and bar 7 to A-Band ?
Degapping is checked and done on all bars that require it. That why there is a column for it to remind you to check every bar. You place a mark if the bar was degapped. I use a stylized ‘dg.’ The bands as they come into being define a zone. If the bar doesn’t fall into that zone then the trend is still advancing in bands. Continue mapping out all the other bands. Now you see what happened when you fanned the TL with the light blue RTL. It created clarity that the subtle difference in geometry formed Dom, non-Dom moves just with price cases. Continue that line of thinking; piecing together Dom and non-Dom segments with price cases as the geometry aligns to form a traverse of a larger channel. What else can be done with the light blue TL other than fanning? How would one ‘carve’ a turn?