Go easy on me, this is a rookie question. I'm wanting to use LEAPS to get levered exposure to a stock in an account that can't have margin. Asset A trades at 35% implied vol. Do I buy options of sufficient delta to get my target exposure, or do I lever asset B which has no dividend and trades at 13% implied vol and then purchase Asset A in the underlying with the cash freed up. It would seem to me that the second option would be cheaper overall.