IVolatility Egar Service

Discussion in 'Options' started by Watson, Jun 22, 2004.

  1. so far , so good. Almost all (27) Dow stocks are up.
     
    #121     Dec 1, 2005
  2. That's nice but it would help if we knew your position. Did you really buy the stocks and sell ITM calls, and if so why did you not just sell puts? How far ITM(calls) or OTM(puts) are your options? Did you do this for a credit or debit?
     
    #122     Dec 1, 2005
  3. I stated my position before:
    1. Bought Dow stocks
    2. Sold slightly ITM components call with ratio < 1 vs. stocks
    3. Bought ATM DIA puts for full hedge of portfolio.
    A lot of room for adjustments here.
    BTW , regular EGAR position (sell Index , buy basket) looks like an absolute disaster so far , about 5.5 minus (and down 8% vs. benchmark/market).
    Good luck all.
     
    #123     Dec 1, 2005
  4. IV_Trader

    Was it necessary to 100% replicate the index ? Could you not have chosen a broadly representative basket of stocks from various sectors ?

    Did you buy the stocks in their correct weightings ?

    How did you balance the long DIA Puts ? Was it by $ delta or what other method ?

    I cannot understand why you chose to go long stock and short stock calls rather than simply short stock puts. Is it me, or have I missed something here ?
     
    #124     Dec 2, 2005
  5. <font color=#ffffff>..............</font color>Corr to Index<font color=#ffffff>...........</font color>Index Weight
    Stock A<font color=#ffffff>.......</font color>0.60<font color=#ffffff>..........................</font color>0.10
    Stock B<font color=#ffffff>.......</font color>0.70<font color=#ffffff>..........................</font color>0.05

    What would be the correlation between stock A/B ?

    TIA.
     
    #125     Dec 5, 2005
  6. I've looked at it from all angles and can't see how it's done.

    Anyone know ?
     
    #126     Dec 6, 2005
  7. sle

    sle

    yes. if you do it on a spreadsheet, make sure it is the correlation of log change: ln px(today)/px(yesterday)
     
    #127     Dec 6, 2005
  8. Still can't see how it could be calculated by using the weighted ratio of LN price change correlations rather than stock price correlations - correlation values of LN price changes bear no resemblance to the actual correlation value of 2 x stocks.

    Anyway, that's probably irrelevant, as I understood from your initial post that you could derive a stock/stock correlation by using stock/index corr / index weighting, i.e. using just the info below;

    <font color=#ffffff>..............</font color>Corr to Index<font color=#ffffff>...........</font color>Index Weight
    Stock A<font color=#ffffff>.......</font color>0.60<font color=#ffffff>..........................</font color>0.10
    Stock B<font color=#ffffff>.......</font color>0.70<font color=#ffffff>..........................</font color>0.05

    Stock to index corr is readily available on the net so I was hoping to avoid having to manually compare every stock/stock corr in the index.

    I'm working on the FTSE100 which would need 4950 different correlation values.

    Any shortcuts / tips etc ?

    Thanks again.
     
    #128     Dec 6, 2005
  9. Isn't that a contradiction ? If you have an implied correlation of +1 or more and replicate the mother index 100% with the components, you cannot make any intrinsic loss. Where the implied correlation is more than +1 the trade would be opened for a credit and that $ value would actually be the arb, where the worst case scenario is the +1 correlation holding. Of course if the stocks then dispersed, Christmas has come early.

    Anyone ever opened a +disperion with 100% replication for a credit ?

    Also, at what implied correlation value would you think about running a reverse dispersion trade ?

    Thanks.
     
    #129     Dec 11, 2005
  10. Slippage, loss of edge in execution.
     
    #130     Dec 11, 2005