I see. If I am not mistaken, you have decreasing red gaussian drawn from 10:40 bar to 11:25 bar. Which is how one annotates a non-dominant portion of up traverse. In which case it also means that you propose the 10:40 bar to be a point 2 in the up traverse. So, where's the point 1 of the up traverse then?
... pt1 is where it is on the chart ... it's just that I draw gaussians a little differently: the second level gaussians show the actual volume trend ... so your interpretation can't be applied here
Even 2 events that explain what happened here It seems that learning new things about this method doesn't ever stop. Thanks romanus. -- innersky
If that's the case then the red decreasing gaussian cannot end at point 1, otherwise we end up with point 1 being at the trough of R\/B - which is an impossibility. Agreed. If your first level gaussians are the ones located below the second level gaussians, then I still can't see the B2B trough - you have increasing red gaussian coming from 11:15 bar and ending at 11:20 bar .... ... which then becomes increasing black gaussian. You do, in fact, draw gaussians a little differently. And since I am not familiar with this particular way of drawing the gaussians - you are absolutely correct - my interpretation can't be applied there.
... this situation is an example where the market action is almost right in between resolutions, so if you watch the 5 min chart you see the pt1 in one position, but if you watch the 15 min chart you see it in a different position (longer than half an hour earlier, in this situation the absolute FTT) ... interestingly, in both situations you end up reversing at about same price level ... try it! ... also, look at the nice sequence carry-over