I agree that the assertion represents a seperate question. However, I disagree with the existance of any dilemma. In the above example, the trader has determined a specific bar provided a signal for change. The market indicated otherwise. Something the market provided, the trader missed. I suspect additional possibilities exist. Most people have a tool (often located in their bathrooms) which allow one to locate the source of their dilemma. - Spydertrader
I think the whole issue of when one has the permission to seek change has to do with arriving at p2 of the red down channel which grew out of pink down traverse. The 1155 PA may have had been an indication of market intentions, since it created VE on the pink down traverse. Then, IMO, the question becomes whether or not one can have a p2 of the channel if price does not VE the existing pink LTL. The basic geometry of drawing the trendlines suggests that until 1255 created VE of the pink LTL, a Point 2 of the channel was out of question. Of course I could be wrong, but it seems unlikely.
LOL. You don't have to tell me. One can easily spend years trying to figure this whole thing out without getting anywhere. Nothing is what it seems. And everything seems what is not.
Your grasp of things goes much deeper than mine. Isn't 1155 a ve of the pink traverse. I have tried to make it a bit easier for myself lately. I try to draw tapes that contain the current price movement(moves from one point to another), not always just 2 bars, and judge the pace/dominance of that tape. I felt I was making it harder than it needed to be. Channels seem to take care of themselves as the sequences unfold. whatever
I would not bet on that. Yes, but that would seem to be the p1 to p2 leg of accelerated traverse. And it would have been if the brown traverse wasn't annotated as faster fractal. It does have all the components of the 5 min ES level traverse IMO.
Today's 1330 ES bar breaks and closes outside of the pink Traverse RTL on IBV, and it's not a Pennant/Lateral BO or FBO, or a Spike Bar. It looks to me as if it clearly establishes black dominance. But Spydertrader's B2B trough doesn't occur until 1355, so 1330 is part of the decreasing black Gaussian. I would appreciate any help in finding the context which prevents 1330 (or 1340, for that matter) from establishing black dominance prior to the blue P2 up.