You had to ruin my evening. I was going to go to sleep happy that the world makes sense again. What is the explanation then for the fact that no permission exists to seek change on 11:50 [close of] bar.
I thought you had it worked out long time ago? You even posted Spyder's charts for comparison! Why ask for a second hand explanation? Do a quick search of Spyder's posts with the keywords "Peak Volume". There are NOT that many posts. If you want a PhD in depth study of the subject, search for Jack's posts as well...
The way I looked at what Romanus discovered was that the increasing nondominant volume (red) meant that the point 2 to point 3 transition of the dominant volume (black) had yet to be completed. This holds true for all cases today. I do believe that a hint has already been given in that part of the answer is already what* you and I said - it's just not the complete answer. Edit 2: So neither the 15:10 nor the 15:20 bars today are PkV bars. lj * this plus the acceleration of the Gaussian slope.
Those charts were attempts to differentiate Peak Volume from Pace Increase on a basis of Gaussian Slope Acceleration. I did and studied and will continue study known instances of pace acceleration and their differences from Peak Volume. I was unable to find anything there to help me differentiate Peak Volume from Pace Increase. Anybody can get a brain freeze. I get them may be more often than others. I just asked a simple friendly question from somebody who may know an answer, no need to gang up on me. I just want to move on with my study a bit faster and make it to some kind of basic plateau.
On this page: http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showt...rpage=6&highlight=peak volume&pagenumber=1047 Jack comments about 'peaking volume' and as well Spyder talks about peak volume and point 1. lj