How to build a Traverse? Dominant - Non-Dominant - Dominant 11:55 Starts us off with a Dominant Black Bar 12:00 & 12:05 bring in the Non-Dominant portion 12:10 shows increasing red but Price closes back inside the previous bar (no change in mode [mode is still long]). This bar also forms a Lateral movement formation. Do laterals represent Dominant or Non-Dominant Price Movement? 12:15 More decreasing black as price continues within the lateral. Are we in Dominant or Non-dominant portion of our traverse? 12:20 Price breaks the formation on increasing black volume, but closes back inside the lateral. Laterals form which again? Dominant or non-dominant Price Movement? If the market has yet to complete its sequences from Point One to Point Two to Point Three (Dominant - non-Dominant - Dominant) then the market has signaled it has not finsihed moving Laterally. Where are we, with respect to the sequences at the close of the 12:20 Bar? Now, 11:50 on the other hand, forms a Formation FBO, followed by a change in dominance (increasing red goes to increasing black). One thing has ended, and another thing has started. This occurs after a Point Three and after price exited the Lateral during its non-dominant portion of its sequences. After returning to the Lateral, Price returned to its dominant Volume of increasing red. Two different contexts. HTH. - Spydertrader
Spyder, Any reason why you did not kill your first lateral movement on the 10:05 (close of) IBGS on increasing volume?
The bar to which you refer falls completely inside the lateral boundaries. An IBGS Bar (on increasing Volume) which breaks through the Lateral boundaries is the variety I use to 'kill off' the Laterals. - Spydertrader
Spydertrader, Just want to make sure that I get this correct (still a bit confused). 1) Is the difference in context of the two cases, a result of the bar following each of the lateral Fbo. In first case the next bar is inc black and changes dominance to UP. In the second case next bar is dec red, no change to dominance which is still UP. OR 2) Is the dominant direction prior to each lateral Fbo a factor? ( I don't think this is it, because in the first case it is DOWN and in the second case it is UP) OR 3) Is it because of the pennant Bo on inc volume prior to the lateral Fbo, in the first case only? OR 4) Am I missing the real reason? Thanks, Phineas
I'd just like to say that "9-19-08" will die tomorrow (or the next day ...). To quote Mr. Black: "Good night and good fight". lj
Guava, Spyder, such discussions have the potential to really boost the understanding of the importance of critical components the confidence and hence profitability hinge upon. Thank you very much.
1520 bar SC 1525 inc vol ibgs, I thought this was SOC but reversed on the 1535 bar IF 1, assumed I was wrong on the SOC. Obviously 1550 jw and 1555 OB on ibv was truely change. What did I miss on the 1525 bar soc?
I notice in your lateral from 09:50 (24th Sept) that the gaussian changes from non dom to dom at 10:00, prior to the end of the lateral. Am I incorrect in thinking that the guassian should show non dom until its end at 10:10? Thanks for your help to get this dom/non dom clarified.