http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=2011797#post2011797 Spydertrader, if youâd be so kind, in my attempt to annotate 7/29/2008 correctly, could you point me in the right direction. http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=2011319#post2011319 I interpreted it that 09:55, 10:00 and 10:05 all end of bar, created a traverse (a green chubby tape in the attached) and with signal for change (Peak Volume) on 10:05 eob bar, the sequence for a traverse is completed. Is this correct? http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=2011432#post2011432 I interpret the above that following an up traverse we have a lateral traverse. I am not sure if your reference to specific signal for change that sits inside Lateral Movement applies to the beginning of the new, second dominant traverse. If it does, then using this: http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=2011916#post2011916 as a guideline, I see two signals inside Lateral Movement, which could be pt1 of the new dom traverse: 11:15 eob â pennant BO on increased volume with failure to provide more increased volume on the next bar. 11:30 eob â Jokari Window I drew blue solid and green dashed lines to illustrate both scenarios. What is the correct logic here? Thank you. P.S. I left out most of the annotations because itâs a work in progress chart.
Also if anybody else can help with the correct way to annotate 7/29/2008, I would greatly appreciate that.
I am still struggling with this problem from 7/29. Both examples show a lack of increasing black volume after the lat bo bar, but 11:20 on 7/18 was an FTT whereas 11:50 on 7/29 was a hold. Both lat bo bars form a pt3 of a traverse. The only differerence that I can see is that the lat bo bar on 7/18 was also a VE of a shallower traverse. Is this the difference you were referring to? If not, could you possibly post your chart from 7/29?
I am staying away from 'A' section until satisfactory completion of 'M', but I could not resist. In case if you think this has something to do with VE, here it is - 1, 2, 3 and signal for change on bar 8: http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=1995057#post1995057 My gut tells me it may have something to do with resolution, but it has been wrong on more than one occasion
I will give that one some thought... I have seen a few typos from Jack (or maybe Dragon 9) and could not be sure if the word was literal Fits in nice and simply with the seeds (cases). I have to remind myself not to overthink sometimes <img src=http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/attachment.php?s=&postid=2019573> Thanks for your thoughts polford
Per dkm's post just above, on 7-18-08 there is a completed 1,2,3 sequence prior to the breakout failure, which gave a JW signal for change and a FTT as a manifestation of same. On 7-29-08 there is no 1,2,3 sequence completed prior to the failed breakout and hence it is a hold. Other than that important difference, it looks very similar to the situation on 7-18-08. lj
Annotation for the lead into and out of FOMC. It looks kind o' wacky but it is fractal friendly with the ES 15 min. The arrows point to where the first BO bar for the various LM's occurs. I have looked very closely at jbarnby's annotation because he gave such a lucid interpretation of the chart happenings during the fabled 8-1-08 late night discussion of the chart of that day. We obviously don't have the same annotation for this time period and the same can be said for everyone else who posted today. The LM is NOT some sort of signal for change but what I do not appreciate is the extent to which it can 'regulate' what goes on between its boundaries. So what could be worse than a thrashing with a 2x4? Drawing and quartering for one, but Spyder isn't that kind of guy (at least not before he looked at this offering). lj
ES U8 Daily Chart August 5 2008 Would anyone care to take a shot at 'M' and 'A' on the daily. Daily is currently in a non dominant traverse of this large down channel. It is colored in green. The green, non dominant traverse of the major down channel has a valid- first dominant traverse in a slate blue. Does the green, non dominant traverse of major down channel, have yet to complete a full second sequence? It would have to do that to begin a third sequence, another dominant traverse, to complete the green non dominant traverse of the major down channel. Sounds like a tongue twister. Any thoughts?