Hello, Let's say GDX is at 35, I buy a month long ITM strangle - call at 30 and put at 40. For example paying $1000 for each leg. And the legs are nearly with equal intrinsic values and delta. So can this trade stay neutral (~ $2000) up to the expiration day? Will one leg equally cover the loss of the other leg? Or is it possible to lose the whole $2000 investment or significant part of it?
Why choose the guts (ITM)? The difference between the ITM and OTM is the box arbitrage. Stick with the OTM. A $2,000 guts strangle is $1,000 for the OTM strangle. You're risking $1k.
I asked if I lose this strangle because the idea was to sell OTM weekly short puts and calls. And then sell the strangle for the same amount I bought it, but I am not sure if it would be possible or not. Though I do not like this strategy because if market falls or rises quickly far behind short option there will be a loss on other leg. See the picture attached with the rules.
Buying ITM strangle is the same from risk stand point as buying OTM strangle with the same strikes. However, in case of ITM one may think that the potential loss is smaller if that loss is measured against the intrinsic value of the strangle. This is a strategy advocated by one Terry Allen (Terry's Tips). He probably does not understand options price parity or tries to appeal to some emotional insecurities of his customers or both.
It's comical. There is so much wrong with this STUDD strategy that I don't know where to start. Buy an ITM strangle, but please don't assume it's somehow advantageous. They're arb-equivalent.
I would not say that OTM strangle and ITM strangles are the same if stock does not move OTM will decay faster than deep ITM.