this is extreme naive thinking: puts and calls are not priced the same way since 1987 ... that october a lot of market makers learned how naive that was ...
derive the put call parity through the futures that way you don't need interest rates of dividends since they are allready priced into the futures
Sorry I am not sure I get it. Suppose I am at the beginning of May and on the market I have options expiring in May and in June. I also have a future expiring in June (same day as options). When applying put-call parity for June's options, I can definitely use the future price instead of the underlying index and don't care about dividends. So as long as I have call and put prices for a given strike I can get the implied interest rate. But if I want to apply the put-call parity for May's options, are you saying I should still use June's future? Wouldn't take include also dividends that market expects to be paid between May and June's expiries?
ah, sorry this detail escaped me. Nope you can't derive it from the June futures. However intrest rates should play a minimal part nowadays. look at several strikes and you'll will have a theoretical future of may so you will know the dividends that will arrive before that time. But you are way overthinking this ... there is nor practical use for what you are aiming to do, rest assured the market makes have things very much in line.
I am not doing this in the hope to find arbitrages. I have a more practical need: I want to minimize the numbers of quotes I retrieve from markets. For a given strike I only want to get one quote (the OTM part, so for example put prices if market is trading above the strike). Then the same-strike call is derived by put-call parity without the need for me to get the market price.
don't understand why you have that need but good luck with it ... not seeing the market seems to be asking for trouble ...