Assuming I initiate futures trades during RTH when 50% intraday margins are in effect, once the full 100% margin kicks in (overnight margins) am I correct in assuming the maintenance margin is the margin used? For example if I had $32000 in my account and at noon I bought 10 ES contracts and didn't sell them, when the time hit and it switched to 100% margin I would assume the margin becomes $3150 (overnight maintenance margin) x 10 contracts or $31500 so nothing would be liquidated (assuming the price of ES hadn't changed)? Not that this would be a good situation to put myself in, but would IB liquidate? SSB
As Sid said... the overnight maintenance margin figure is the magic number. If net liquidating drops below that, stuff starts getting closed.