p1 is the starting price on the price function p(x) and p2 is the second price, where the energy is computed between these two price levels. p2>p1
i realized I made an important mistake with the equation. You integrate over time and not price. duh. The m1 value is the average slope of the price function over t1 to t2. The price integral is the average price of the price function between t1 and t2. p2 and p1 aren't needed for this example. 3rd time: for the sake of simplicity, when explaining v shapped revovries the p(x) function will become a line and the volume integral will compress to an arbirary variable 'v' for volume.
Hey putz - I'm banning myself from ET. So just wanted to say good bye to you... thank you for the endless fades, unlimited free money... Please keep posting and let us know when you get bearish, or start quoting Stephen Hawking...
No "V"-shaped recovery likely this time, 'trd. Wouldn't be needed if you had learned your lessons before. Wishful thinking is not how traders are profitable. Buying and holding past momo stocks will take longer (if ever) for you to get even than if you had bought blue chips. Buy-and-hold ST and wait forever, now that you are in a hole. No differential calculus can replace how stocks werk. werd Though, thanks for the laugh! Please let us know when you are developing algorithms for hedge funds. I would be pleased if you were to prove me wrong about you. Develop code that will accurately display your current circumstance and derive an efficient way out. (is that wrong? am i being mean?) I can't imagine how grueling you are to some. I am too! Pay$ense
You need to post more in the trading forum, save me some work, paysense As for this thread - it's the funniest analysis since Bull -n- Bear Analytics.