I haven't read good reviews about any Forex brokers

Discussion in 'Forex Brokers' started by 1a2b3cppp, Mar 13, 2009.

  1. here is the sample calculation from the IB page:

    "USD 50,000 daily volume for EUR = USD 2.50"

    So to extrapolate that to $1M traded (for under $1B monthly size, it gets better if you trade a lot)

    IF $50,000 traded = $2.50 commish one way

    IF $50,000 x 20 = $1M traded

    THEN $2.50 commish x 20 = $50 one way

    THEN $50 x 2 for R/Trip = $100

    So yes, I was off by $20 per R/T or $10 per side - my point is still valid, this is still 1/2 cost of fixed spreads even at 1 Pip and it is a lot less than your typical 2 - 3 pip spreads on majors.

    Any problems with this? Correct me if I am wrong, I am open-minded about it.
     
    #91     Apr 2, 2009
  2. jaley

    jaley

    1,000,000 * 0.00002 = $20

    2.50 is the minimum commission
     
    #92     Apr 2, 2009

  3. OK, my bad - thanks, so that just makes it way, way better :)
     
    #93     Apr 2, 2009
  4. You think.....

    Are you and IluvVol related by any chance?
     
    #94     Apr 2, 2009
  5. If you trade 1 mio. eur/usd, $20 is still not right, but anyways..

    Please explain how you pay 2 pips per trade as "commission" with a 1-pip fixed spread like in your example. Thanks.
     
    #95     Apr 2, 2009

  6. Actually, it is $20 per side per $1M. See the IB commish page. It states that the rate is 0.2 of a pip - so therefore the prior posted example by our other member is right. It costs $40 to open & close $1M.

    a pip = 0.0001

    therefore 2/10th of a pip = 0.00002 x $1,000,000 = $20

    ---------------------------------------

    I did not say that you pay "commission" on fixed spread. Rather the true cost of the trade is 1 Pip in and 1 Pip out.

    When you open a trade, you are down one pip that the market has to move for you to get to breakeven.

    When you close a trade, the market has to go 1 pip farther to fill your order at your specified price to clear the spread.

    Look at it this way: in order to make 10 pips, the market has to move 12 in your favor because you lose one pip on the open and one on the close.

    It is a function of only being able to open a long trade at the ask and only close it at the bid. Or open a short trade at the bid and close it at the ask.

    Is this right? Again, I remain openminded to any explanation of how this is wrong. I am not perfect. Tell me if I am missing the boat.
     
    #96     Apr 2, 2009

  7. Not I think, rather the math proves. But you are welcome to keep overpaying for your trading. Matters to me not at all.
     
    #97     Apr 2, 2009
  8. I hate to bring it up but there is a lot more to broker selection than simple spreads.

    I care about number of currency pairs offered first and foremost. Second is available leverage and at what level(GFT has 400:1 up to $10,000 account value if I am not mistaken). Third is general reputation, firm stability (financial and technical) and other things/intangibles.

    Whether EUR/USD is 2 pips or 3 pips matters little to me. I am not a scalper or a day trader.
     
    #98     Apr 2, 2009
  9. Don't worry, you missed the sarcasm of the 'You think...' remark

    So I'm happy paying what I pay, you're happy with me paying what I pay, hey we're both happy!

    lol, I love this place but I've had too much entertainment for one day :D
     
    #99     Apr 2, 2009

  10. Actually, now that I think about it, this only holds true assuming that on the ECN you can buy a long trade at the bid and sell it/close at the ask, right?
     
    #100     Apr 2, 2009