My first reaction/question on reading this is how do you handle the long term upward drift of many markets? Do you detrend as a step 0? Apologies if I've stepped in here and missed some fundamental piece of information. I've not read the entire thread. Thx D
No need for apologies. You're overthinking... no need to detrend anything... use the simple rules I posted exactly as they were given as a starting point. There's nothing significant left out... we trade a slightly different parameter set but it's basically the same thing.
Removing condition 1 would yield better performances for the buy side. (At least for equities). Basically a dip buying strategy that has always been working well but hard to scale up.
This is certainly something that should be considered. Not sure I know what you mean by "hard to scale up" though. At any rate, people looking at this idea should consider the ramifications of removing condition 1. Though I haven't run the test I am sure it would dramatically increase performance, but.... What comes after the .... in the previous sentence?
Attached is the low-budget quantitative analysis of this strategy going back three years. I used the DIA this time as a proxy for the DJIA â which had a few more signals. No fancy performance strategy, just a quick check of entry, exits and heat (risk). No stop baked in a la Talon, but a big stop isnât needed based on this limited data sample. Note: Entry signal was only after close was âless thanâ day before for three days in a row . . . not exactly the same as âthree red barsâ like I said before. Iâd say that a little flexibility with the definition of âconsecutive close downâ might show many more, very good signals. Also, percentile of 5 day close is often = 50%, but exit was determined when it exceeded 50%. I like this strategy because it is surely very uncomfortable for nearly all traders to buy/sell into the face of momentum. Wouldnât bother me if proper homework was done. See attached for a summary of manual backtesting if you like. Thanks. Keep trading. J.Scott
I still don't get it: I see about four different ways to calculate this over the last 15 days at first glace, there might be more if I think this through: do you use closing price, range, volume-adjusted prices, ... What seems 'obvious' to you isn't it to me, so I would like to see the actual calculation. And, yes, I know what a percentile is ... I just don't get what 'raw data' you take into account from which you calculate your nth percentile ... (it might be me having a major hangover from last night ) so giving the details on how you get the 10th percentiel of the last 15 days of aapl would be nice ...
closing price. the system as i gave it here only requires closing price. now, it might be smart to use highs / lows, but as a starting point i just gave closes.
maybe I overlooked something in going over things: from what I understand now you just take the closes ... and then the nth percentile ...