wow, only $15k in comm on 6.7m traded, does this mean 3.35m buy and 3.35 sell? Comm comes out to .0022 per share I think.
Good job Lescor, How do you manage to keep your losses at such minimal amounts, especially considering that you average down (scale-in)? I would imagine that when a painful trend is going against you while averaging down, the magnitude of the loss could be pretty extreme... Walt
Cmon Newb, have some discretion, your first post in here and you ask one of the better traders for proof. I got a suggestion, Read this whole thread from post 1, then type in Lescor in the search function and read all his posts, Then rethink your question again before you post another question. geez,, wtf,, Ef
Hey Lescor, I know this quote is old but I didn't see any further references to this. How can you measure expectancy of a strategy without risk to reward ratios? It seems to me that this is how expectancy is measured. Can anyone shed light on this? Thanks in advance.
Expectancy= (win rate * avg win) + (loss rate * avg loss) R:R is usually expressed as dollars risked compared to size of wins. It doesn't take into account win rate, though some people might define it differently. R:R is a ratio, expectancy is usually expressed as a dollar amount. They're similar, but not the same. At least that's how I understand R:R. But I never use it, so maybe I'm wrong.
I see what you're saying, but I would think your average win/loss amounts would be optimized from backtesting and that's why you would need RR.
why do you need proof? the OP is not selling anything; and he is one of the knowledgeable people on this board.
just ran across your thread... happy new year!!! & all the best.... kinda been laying low how they say...