as U all know That Fib series Fib(n)=Fib(n-1)+Fib(n-2) While fib(0) =1 and Fib(1)=1 ok so how can that be used in lots? these are my orders for today on cable % sure Long Long PT Long S/L 62% 1.9426 1.9438 1.9416 69% 1.9419 1.9440 1.9407 76% 1.9413 1.9442 1.9399 84% 1.9403 1.9446 1.9389 92% 1.9391 1.9450 1.9376 95% 1.9383 1.9452 1.9368 98% 1.9371 1.9456 1.9355 99% 1.9356 1.9462 1.9337 100% 1.9349 1.9464 1.9330 if i use 1 lot each then i get Possible Loss Possible gain 0.0009 0.0013 0.0012 0.0021 0.0014 0.0030 0.0014 0.0042 0.0015 0.0059 0.0015 0.0070 0.0016 0.0085 0.0018 0.0106 0.0020 0.0114 0.0134 0.0540 total The Ratio of Loss to gain is 24.7% if the use Fib =1 for the first order Fib = 2 for 2nt Fib = 3 ...= 5 Fib( Lots)..etc Looking like this for lots 1 2 3 5 8 13 21 34 55 then I get Possible Loss Possible gain 0.0009 0.0013 0.0025 0.0042 0.0041 0.0089 0.0072 0.0212 0.0118 0.0475 0.0197 0.0906 0.0338 0.1780 0.0628 0.3603 0.1081 0.6295 0.2510 1.3415 total Ratio of loss to gain =18.70% ---> Became a more effient trading method I think I know why as well... since risk or VaR...is in a way exponantial then Lots should be as well (Hence Fib numbers) ...to linearize the total gain Comments? TA Junkies? TIA
That Ratio is minimized when the lots are increased in geometric order % sure Fib( Lots) 69.1462% 2 77.3373% 4 86.9705% 8 95.4246% 16 99.4317% 32 99.9927% 64 100.0000% 128 Lot=2^n Funny
but one has to change the % sure levels for usd/chf today % sure Long Long PT Long S/L _______ Short Short PT Short S/L Fib( Lots) 69% 1.2323 1.2333 1.2317 _______ 1.2362 1.2351 1.2368 2 77% 1.2319 1.2335 1.2313 _______ 1.2366 1.2349 1.2373 4 87% 1.2314 1.2337 1.2307 _______ 1.2372 1.2347 1.2380 8 95% 1.2305 1.2339 1.2298 _______ 1.2382 1.2344 1.2390 16 99% 1.2292 1.2344 1.2283 _______ 1.2396 1.2339 1.2406 32 100% 1.2273 1.2350 1.2259 _______ 1.2417 1.2332 1.2431 64