My Professor is a huge post-keynesian. Im an economics minor and I am currently in a class called Economic School of Thought. We are covering Classical, Neoclassical, Marginalism, and Keynesian. My professor although extremely biased, is still very intelligent and credible. He tries not to get political and fails terribly every class.. I was just wondering the differences between Marginalism, Neoclassical, and the Austrian School. When he talks about Marginalism and Austrians he relates them all to NeoClassical. If somebody can help me understand the fundamental differences, that would be great.