hi, so doe sthis mean that, if i trade a pair that does not contain my base currency (ex. gbp/jpy), then P/L is automatically converted to USD ?
Out of curiosity, I gave this a try the other day. I completed a trade not involving my base currency (USD) and ended up with 30 CAD net profit. I converted the CAD back to USD using IDEAL but WAS NOT charged a commission. I'm not sure if this was because it was such a small trade or because IB knew it originated from another trade. Any ideas?
How about a buy/sell spread? If you change the USD back to CAD it probably will be a tad less than the original $30.00 CAD.
very interesting hurricane. do you manually place another buy/sell transaction to convert ur profits to ur base currency
I placed a manual sell of the 30.00 CAD and received 29.98 USD. The transaction was priced at the current bid price (which I accepted) with no commission deduction.
Now if you buy CAD for that 29.98 USD will you get $30.00 CAD? My guess you will get less and IB makes a bit of money on the buy/sell spread.
So I dont get it, whats the big deal if you dont close it out? Are you guys talking about having to pay the roll? Also, How come I placed a order, closed it out and had some realized P&L. Then, I open another trade, and I was losing money on that trade so I had a negative unrealized P&L. However, at some point my realized P&L was reduced. Why is that? Also, How do they calculate accrued intrest when you are trading forex?