delta depreciation

Discussion in 'Options' started by saminny, Jun 19, 2010.

  1. 1- Because you did it yourself. Remember "So, It did not occur to you that in case of interest you could also use as strike the forward price?"
    My man...

    2- I didn't have to. You set a no IR world. Remember ?

    Please don't be so angry. There is nothing to win.
     
    #81     Jun 26, 2010
  2. You stated in an earlier post that "knowledge HAS to be shared".

    1. Your answers show that either it did not occur to you, or you do not live by your own rule, or both.

    2. "I didn't have to" is inconsistent with "knowledge HAS to be shared".
     
    #82     Jun 26, 2010
  3. #83     Jun 26, 2010


  4. 1- Both for sure.That's why I posted the derivation of your "patented" trick and show how everybody could.

    2- It sounds as if you found no escape and tried to invert the situation.
    Are you for real ? You're angry, don't you?
     
    #84     Jun 26, 2010
  5. This is altogether a very silly question...
     
    #85     Jun 27, 2010
  6. why?
     
    #86     Jun 27, 2010
  7. saminny

    saminny

    I thought your so called "trick" was based on BSM formula? Are you saying your trick came before BSM?
     
    #87     Jun 27, 2010
  8. Because you have not specified any assumptions...

    For example, if in this hypothetical market of yours all assets are worth either 0 or 42, I have a great method of pricing options on these assets.

    The beauty of BSM is that it's well-specified and internally consistent.
     
    #88     Jun 27, 2010
  9. You are free to make your assumptions.

    Glad to read that . Could you share the details?
     
    #89     Jun 27, 2010
  10. You are asking good questions!

    What/who made you think that? Is the derivations posted by Master?

    Do you mean before as in time of publication, or do you mean something else such as "independent of BSM", "without the need of BSM", etc, etc?
     
    #90     Jun 27, 2010