Same PP6 to PP4 combo annotated on jack's 1-13-14 chart for reference. http://screencast.com/t/EIJthxXewK6
A good question i have is why does Jack sometimes annotate a BO T1 AFTER the first P2 on some of his charts? Here's some examples from charts oct 2013 thru jan 2014. http://screencast.com/t/M8aOBSoPND6 http://screencast.com/t/ZMqvQ3kD5ho http://screencast.com/t/82jdRVe7ms http://screencast.com/t/uUjXakGG http://screencast.com/t/gE4dNxOaG http://screencast.com/t/ikILNzr9fe http://screencast.com/t/l9hngqZFT http://screencast.com/t/syR9nzqS6P http://screencast.com/t/cus0K95k http://screencast.com/t/enXzDmfhf http://screencast.com/t/brB706Oas http://screencast.com/t/vGkfBCEI http://screencast.com/t/VTF725fKG
Ah excellent catch Heroic. All of the rules and sub-rules i still forget sometimes.I greatly appreciate when errors are pointed out with my annotations so please everyone post all they see.Thanks.
I'm annotating b3 as a BO T1 because jack annotates a BO T1 even after the first P2 in many recent charts.These situations where jack annotates a BO T1 after the P2 seem to have a few common themes.One is there is an internal where he fans the P2 bar and then gets a BO of the rtl soon after.These examples are what i'm using for my BO T1 annotation on b3.Has anyone studied these kind of BO T1's and found otherwise? http://screencast.com/t/9SunlNCB45HE http://screencast.com/t/ZMqvQ3kD5ho http://screencast.com/t/enXzD2mfhf http://screencast.com/t/vGkfBCEI http://screencast.com/t/VTF725fKG
Recently i noticed that jack does not always annotate a first P1 on the same bar when he has multiple EE's trigger even when there is a failsafe or A band EE involved. Are these an error? Or if the multiple EE's on the same bar has at least one PP EE then he treats them like a PP only (assigning the first P1 on next measurable bar)? Then i found this comment on jack's 10-30-13 chart."for ANDS previous turn has to be failsafe". ANDS what is that? Some bars with multiple EE's have an "AND". Jack also has arrows pointing to the first P1 being assigned on the bar after the EE even though one of the EE's was a BO T1.So if the previous EE before a bar with multiple EE's (where one of those EE's is a PPx) is NOT a FAILSAFE EE than we don't assign the first P1 on that bar? In the example by jack there is a BO T1 and PP3 preceded by a PP4.Jack seems to be saying that is why he annotated on the next bar instead of the same bar as the EE's triggered.Jack also appears to be saying that in this situation it's not an "AND".This all assumes the bar with the multiple EE's triggering on it is not an OB.I have not seen anything on this in the threads.Has anyone else seen anything on this subject? http://screencast.com/t/VzQq9aEzsymx
Unfortunately I don't know the answer to either of these. It would be nice to get an updated status of BO T1 since they seem to be triggering more now than before, unless there is just something we've been missing the whole time. In regards to multiple EE's on a non-OB, the only thing I've read about them is that all combinations possible are checked vs. the Modrian Table, but I know what note you're talking about, and I don't know what it means.