Can anyone offer a 30 sec synopsis of what happened at Chrysler, specifically regarding the taxpayer money given them a couple of months ago? Did the govt. force Chrysler into bankruptcy and thereby relieve them of paying back the billions they got earlier? The govt is becoming the DIP lender , right? So it's first in line as a creditor (or among the first, including employees and whatnot)? this applied to new debt, but not pre-filing debt, right??? Are the first billions of tax $ simply gone now? protected by bankruptcy? What about all the talk about making sure the taxpayer was protected, and the car-czar, and all that??? Was that all just bullshit? Could they not have gone bankrupt without absorbing billions of taxpayer $ first? Likely I am just misunderstanding. I guess a more profound question might be "Does it even matter?" It's all just play money? Technically the fed could just "create" a couple of billion fewer dollars than it had planned to, and everything is offset back to the hypothetical circumstance where no money flowed to Chrysler as a bailout? Maybe I'm just ridiculously stupid, but I'm having a hard time grasping what is fundamentally going on here. (I understand clearly how Chrysler fucked up their business, so no need to explain that; what I'm not clear about is the bailout $'s, where the taxpayers are in line to get them "back," and if it even matters, given the source of the money). lol, trying to imagine lending my neighbor a bunch of money (unsecured), and then forcing him into bankruptcy to make all his other (secured) creditors get money. wtf?