Christmas vs. New Years

Discussion in 'Politics' started by aphexcoil, Dec 23, 2002.

  1. I checked a few sources and you appear to be right, although for famous names, the s' is preferred over s's -- which means my use of Jesus' was acceptable.


    But a singular noun or name ending in ‘s’ is not normally an exception along with this shifting rule; so “the horse of James” becomes “James’s horse”, and “lens” takes a possessive in “lens’s.” Be aware, though, that some names ending in ‘s’ (especially classical ones for some reason- maybe they’re too far above us poor modern mortals in sheer heroic scope to disdain the use of an apostrophe that doesn’t make room for them) seem to prefer the use of a shifted apostrophe; “Hercules’ house was very big.”

    http://www.abctales.com/abcplex/viewfeature.cgi?f=40



    "Notice that names ending with “S” get an apostrophe after the last letter of the name and then another “S” to indicate possession. This is the British and Canadian method. American English tends not to add the “S” and this partly accounts for the inconsistency which is so common."

    http://www.wlu.ca/~wwwphil/mcnulty/grammar.html


    "But note: While these second examples still represent the rule, as the English language evolves, it is becoming more common and acceptable to add only the apostrophe to a singular noun (usually somebody's name) that already ends with an 's'. This would be written as Charles' bag and the Jones'. So for singular nouns already ending with an 's', you can use either form and it will be correct."

    http://www.commerce.otago.ac.nz/finc/writewell/grammar7.html
     
    #21     Dec 25, 2002
  2. stu

    stu

    Oh yes Aphie correct indeed and I am also ever so humble. :D

    You can use whatever you want of course. My initial point was that you know there is only one Jesus which normally will be referred to therefore Jesus' could be used. However for example, that may not work so well in countries where the name Jesus has been taken more frequently as a first name. You use Jesus' there if writing in English and which do you mean? Jesus' book (the son of God jesus) or Jesus' book (Jesus Rodriguez) The whole point is precision. There is no mistaking what is being meant by Jesus's or Jones's or Christmas's.

    But note: While these second examples still represent the rule, as the English language evolves, it is becoming more common and acceptable to add only the apostrophe to a singular noun (usually somebody's name) that already ends with an 's'. This would be written as Charles' bag and the Jones'. So for singular nouns already ending with an 's', you can use either form and it will be correct."

    It cannot be "correct" if it can cause an unnecessary confusion.
     
    #22     Dec 25, 2002
  3. stu

    stu

    And some fell on stony ground.........

    I'd swap some quotes with you but the novelty soon wares off........
    To get an objective view I would suggest you balance your 'words you couldn't put better yourself ' against those you find in www christ in you .net. LOL Now there's a title which screams objectivity if ever I heard one.
    I gather from the your remark above that you haven't half a clue of what the hell it is I have said.
    Here endeth my interest . :) It's party time :)
     
    #23     Dec 25, 2002
  4. nitro

    nitro

    Isn't that called the "Days of Kings" ?

    nitro
     
    #24     Dec 26, 2002
  5. igsi

    igsi

    No, it's not. There is no such a thing as "Days of Kings" at all.
     
    #25     Dec 26, 2002
  6. nitro

    nitro

    I am beginning to believe you are an idiot. Here you go, assuming you can read Spanish.

    http://www.cambrils.altanet.org/ajtms/cambrils/turisme/festa-c.htm

    The reference to the "Kings" I believe is a reference to the "three wise men." ?

    nitro
     
    #26     Dec 26, 2002
  7. igsi

    igsi

    There is no need for me to read in Spanish because the "IT geeks", the people you claim belong to, came up with a thing called translator. Moreover, there was no even need to translate it because the page exists in English: http://www.cambrils.altanet.org/ajtms/cambrils/turisme/festa-e.htm.

    Anyway, here is a list of my findings:
    1) You must be the first person who translated that fiesta's name as "Days of Kings" because it does not really much.
    2) This has nothing to do with Russia.
    3) This has even less to do with Orthodox Christmas.
    4) The celebrations take place on January 5th and 6th, not on January 6th and 7th.

    Thus, you misunderstand simple things (the numbers below 10), insist that some common terms ("high-end server" in another thread) have different and only to you known meaning, and you come up with illogical ideas such as the one that you presented in this thread. Evidently, you perception is twisted and you are being delusional, so I'll take that you see me as an idiot as a compliment. You may want to try re-reading this when you are sober or when you have not forgotten to take your medication, whichever is applicable.
     
    #27     Dec 26, 2002
  8. OHLC

    OHLC

    In France there is "La fête des rois", although it now tends to be celebrated all January :)
    We eat some "Galettes des rois", sort of cake with a bean or ring, or figure in it. The one who found the item inside his share of cake receives a crown and gets to be the "king" of the day.
    I guess this could be translated as the "Days of Kings"...


    OHLC
     
    #28     Dec 26, 2002
  9. igsi

    igsi

    It could be translated that way but nobody would because "the festival of the Kings" would be closer. Besides, english speakers are more likely to translate it as "The Twelfth Night". It's the same as abovementioned "Fiestas de los Reyes Magos de Oriente".
     
    #29     Dec 26, 2002
  10. wild

    wild

    January 6 Three Kings Day. (Epiphany)

    For details on the German celebration of Three Kings Day (Dreikoenigstag), see Robert Shea's site (including pictures) at:

    http://www.serve.com/shea/germusa/3kings.htm

    regards

    wild
     
    #30     Dec 26, 2002