Just looking to get some new perspectives on the current proposed regulations to force credit default swaps to be exchange traded? While the banks obviously won't like this, isn't this what's for the best? And also, to clarify, would this mean that you would have to own a proportional section of the underlying company/mortgages/etc to sell swaps on it? And if so, would this prevent the hyperleverage that occured and arguably caused the meltdown?