Are equal % moves equally profitable in different pairs?

Is a 0.1% move in the EUR/USD as profitable as a 0.1% move in (say) EUR/JPY?

I'm tracking 15 pairs with an automated system, and am trying to figure out which moves in the different pairs are the most profitable. This is using qoutes from Metatrader4.

Allegedly this will allow me to ride the winners and cut the losers.

 

Google "fx variable pip" and you'll get your answer.

 

Where do you think Google gets it's answers?

 

Easier said than done.

GBP/USD and EUR/USD will give you all the voltility you need. Tracking 15 pairs might bog you down.

KISS = Keep It Simple Stupid

 

I have historical data on the various pairs, and a way to get to get daily updates - so now I "just" need to find something that works.

I will be scouring through the historical data looking for clues. If it turns out I dont need to track everything, I wont. If it turns out I do, I will. Hopefully it wont!

At least with using automated systems I don't personally have to analyze all the data, just the system itself.

 

my eur/usd pair will continue to be profitable.

 

Not much information.

 

So, a +1% move in one pair is not equitable to a +1% move in another pair? I understand that the $ value of a single pip is not equitable.

 

Yes that is correct.......unless both pairs have the same base/quote (GBP/USD) values.

 

There is a thing name " Correlation". I think it will answer your question.