Another easy money strategy

Discussion in 'Options' started by skaranam, Jan 7, 2006.

  1. Actually need to add-in the difference between strike and underlying at the time of going long.

    Break-even is;

    $ 75+ (76.30-75.00)/2 = $ 75.65

    $ 75.65 – ($ 15.10 + $ 10.80)/2 = $ 62.70
     
    #11     Jan 7, 2006
  2. No you don't. The synth takes into account the spot price the thread starter mentioned, provided those quote were indicative as quoted.
     
    #12     Jan 7, 2006
  3. I agree the synthetic equivalent, but not his break-even. It's $ 62.70, see above.

    Not $ 64.20.
     
    #13     Jan 7, 2006
  4. No it doesn't. Run a practical example and you'll see it.
     
    #14     Jan 7, 2006
  5. C'mon Profit. Any combination of the stock/call synthetic is going to equal its natural equivalent. They're 100% fungible under all terms.

    Whatever credit is received on the natural put will be equal to the stock/call combo-credit; if not, there is an arbitrage via replication. Therefore, look to the nautral put at 10.80 to price the synthetic. If the put is trading at $10.80 then the synth is trading at $10.80 as well. Exclude execution variance.
     
    #15     Jan 7, 2006
  6. They have to carry the same PnL distro -- that's the defintion of equivalence.
     
    #16     Jan 7, 2006
  7. But that's approx the modeled forward rate I see here in bloomberg. The conversion carries rho-risk; so an increase in FI rates is a negative.
     
    #17     Jan 7, 2006
  8. Oops, as other posters have suggested my break-even figure is wrong. My revised figure is $62.7 as Profitaker has already stated.

    Investment =-76.3+15.1+10.8=-50.4
    At expiration Call =0, Put=-12.3, Stock=62.7
    Value at expiration =+0-12.3+62.7=50.4 (equals investment above)

    Hence 62.7 is break even.
     
    #18     Jan 7, 2006
  9. What is the b/e at expiration if selling two puts?
     
    #19     Jan 7, 2006
  10. I know , I was just having fan posting "free' risk trade sample
     
    #20     Jan 7, 2006