In addition, your horse example is incorrect. If horse 1 has already won, the chance of the next horse winning is 60%. I think you are referring to: What is the chance of hitting two winners in a row? Then the correct answer would be: 36%. If you don't understand the difference, you really need to study more. Joe.
Honey, This means you would only get the two lips and tongue lining up together for my cock,100% of the time.
WOW! I am sure if you tried harder you could have included a few more insults. I have no idea where all your anger comes from but the original question was not whether or not the single system was better, the original question was: what is the winning rate? Joe.
There is no such thing as probability in trading and there is no such thing as probability diapason.The 'probability' is always 100%.For 2 different events you always have 100% 'probability' outcome at the same time. Are you that dumb to get it When you are flying,for e.g., there are 2 different outcomes which are both 100% ,either you crash, or you`ll reach your destination.
I do not think this is a correct answer. think in this way: if the system B is random, ie., 50% winning rate, Applying B to the signals from A will not change the winning rate of A. thus A+random = A. now B is a 60% winning rate, A+random will less than A+B.
Here is my logic: A game of flipping coins. You have two coins to flip. If either coin turns up heads, you win. You flip the first coin, and its a head, you win. The second coin flip does not matter. Your first win has a 50% probability of winning. Second try, your first coin flip is a tail. You flip the second coin. Now what is the probability of a head on the 2nd coin? It's 50%. So, you still have a 50% chance of winning. Mathematically, for two coins, you have 2 chances to win, but with 4 possible outcomes. So, the probability is 2/4 or 50%. The key here is that only one system must be correct. So, the system with the highest probability is the probability of success. The second system's probability does not contribute or remove any probability to the first.
Do you mean they have had no correlation in the past, or that we know for a fact they will have no correlation in the future, under any circumstance?
Here is a question: If you don't trade, how do you know (deterministically) that A wins and B loses (0.24 probability) or A loses and B wins (0.24 probability)? So, when you say "48% no trade," you know a priori that your next trade will result in no profit and hence you don't want to take the trade. May I have your crystal ball, please?