Walmart has just succumbed to the Bloomberg gun control crowd and put in place a number of new rules designed to limit certain gun sales. A question immediately arose when I saw one of these new rules. It is that guns will not be sold to someone who previously bought a gun and was "used in a crime". Well, I learned a few things from Bill Clinton and I know there is a difference between "used committing a crime" and "used in a crime". What I am getting at here is that in some states, Indiana being one, guns are confiscated by police that are used by anyone using the gun during the course of a crime. This Includes someone defending themselves, not just the perp of a crime. So, we may be seeing the rather perverse, (but wholly expected from the gun control crowd) situation where a person that has used a gun in defending himself from a bad guy attempting to commit a crime, being unable to buy another one. Please tell me this is not true.