https://www.sec.gov/Archives/edgar/data/78003/000087666122000258/xslF25X02/primary_doc.xml Not sure if that's what this means. Maybe somebody with expertise in listings can weigh in? If so, why would they do this? If not, what is this?
http://www.opensourcetruth.com/judg...-clears-way-for-pfizer-whistleblower-lawsuit/ Puts are back on the menu boys.
Try a legitimate source. Not something with crazy lady "Dr. Rima," who wants to cure you with a silver elixir: https://edcdeveloper.wordpress.com/tag/dr-rima/ She's the idiot behind the site you linked. But, yeah, get your puts on, why don't you.
lol definitely a shit source, I cant deny that. This is odd though: https://www.israelnationalnews.com/news/317091 FDA report shows Pfizer's clinical trials found 24% higher all-cause mortality rate among the vaccinated compared to placebo group. Report emphasizes that "None of the deaths were considered related to vaccination." Of course the all knowing, all seeing "fact checkers" are having a field day with this one: "just because more people died in the vaccinated group doesn't mean the vaccine isn't effective..." lol. Personally, I just don't think the vaccines are all that they were promised to be...And I absolutely hate the pharmaceutical industry, so watching them crash would be an absolute pleasure.
Can you find a single other source making this claim? And I don't mean another source that refers back to this one.
I honestly don't care enough about trying to convince you of something to devote anymore time this way. If you are curious then research it. As if your approval of references means anything to anyone but you lmao...the ego in this guy haha.
Well they do cite an FDA report. https://www.fda.gov/media/151733/download "From Dose 1 through the March 13, 2021 data cutoff date, there were a total of 38 deaths, 21 in the COMIRNATY group and 17 in the placebo group. None of the deaths were considered related to vaccination." I did not dive into the report so I have no idea whether that is statistically significant.