i have 3 basic questions regarding implied volatility. 1, why is it that the farther otm you go the bigger the imp v is? 2, when i pull up an options chain of lets pick apple. the expiration is april 1. when looking at the deep itm strike of 60 which has a delta of close to one, the imp v is 239.75, but when looking at the higher strike of 65 which has the same delta the imp v is only 187. why is this? (i am looking at this chain after hours so it could be that this is why it is skewed but i don't think so.) 3, when looking on the same chain on apple with exp of april first, the 85 strike as imp v of 112 but the 80 strike which is deeper i n the money only has an imp v of 79? is this skewed?
I think that's called the volatility smile. It's a well known phenomenon. I don't know why it's that way.
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/v/volatilitysmile.asp Apparently it only started appearing after the 1987 stock market crash. Before that the IV across all strikes were flat. Huh, go figure! I suspect the volatility smile has to do with the fat tails theory.
In your examples the options are so deep in the money they have little Vega. So small changes in the bid offer will have huge implied volatility repercussions. But it’s not really monetizable.