Does it matter how you express a trade - 1y2y EONIA receiver vs 3y EONIA receiver? One is a derivation of the other, apart from the immediate cashflows you would have to start working on the 3y, what's the major difference?
The major difference is that the 1y2y EONIA receiver is a forward-starting swap, meaning it focuses on future rate expectations (forward rates), whereas the 3y EONIA receiver starts now and locks in today's 3-year rate. The 1y2y trade gives you exposure to future rate movements beyond the first year, while the 3y trade is focused on the current rate environment for the full 3-year period. So, while both have overlapping elements (since 1y + 2y = 3y), the trades target different points on the yield curve and have different implications for timing and rate expectations.
did you chatgpt this? the 1y2y will only cover from years 1-2. Where are three years over from now to 3 years. 1y + 2y <> 3y. Which feels like a chatgpt error.
It depends on the lingo, new-school or old school (also European vs US FI lingo is different). So 1y2y as in "1 year into 2 year" is 2 years 1 year forward, while "1 year by 2 year" can be 1 year 1 year forward. I've had confused conversations before and now (though I rarely trade interest rate products these days) specify explicitly what I want. Even if the two securities are co-terminal, they are quite different. First of all, a forward-starting swap will be much more volatile since short rates are controlled by the Fed and have way less vol. Second, forward-starting swap has roll-down, while spot-starting swap has coupon carry - the two are likely to be different. I am very surprised that someone is asking these questions here unless it's for some student project.