I've been trading Options again and I'm getting unreal Delta to OTM Probability Ratios. Call Side 0.3 Delta =0.85% OTM Probability Put Side 0.3 Delta =0.55% OTM Probability Both Sides had the same Implied Volatility. How is this even possible? Is it because one Side gets purchased more? Shouldn't there be a Scew in IV too? If this persists, Delta is useless to use in Backtesting. EDIT: Ticker was AXSM
Where and how are you coming up with the % probability of OTM ?? Doesn't make sense.. 30 Delta options should have an apx 70% OTM .. What percent of Spot options are you comparing??
Are you looking at Probability of Touch?? That's apx 2x Delta.. Edit..Saw your screen shot...Ill look at the Prob ITM calculation
I'm looking at Probability OTM and Delta Column on the Strikes I marked in the Screenshot. Delta should be equal to ITM and 1-Delta=OTM Probability. There is no Prob of Touch illustrated in that Screenshot acc to what I've read on TDA https://www.google.com/amp/s/tickertape.tdameritrade.com/amp/trading/option-probability-delta-14981
From a TOS article..They seem to have their own home brew voodoo.. The calculations may be slightly different from the option’s delta, but the two readings are generally within a couple percentage points of each other. Either reading can be used to help define the trade's risk.